Check out this question. It was asked on Stack Overflow proper, then migrated to Meta, with the owner's not only approval, but desire. The owner had been previously binned here on Meta, and the suspension is not up yet.
Unlike some activity from the owner, it is a legitimate Meta use. But is the ability to ask an intentional Meta question and get it successfully migrated a potential abuse of the binning system?
(Note: Again, that's a legitimate Meta request, I'm just asking about the loophole here.)
Looks like he's done it again, as of today.