I read that a question ban is a lower level than account which to me I thought meant IP address. If a person is question banned and not trying to circumvent it, can other users on a shared IP address continue to post from say a company IP address if things all show they are independent pre-existing users like they have had accounts for awhile that are used on IPs the question ban is not on as well.
I ask because I had some closed posts that got me the ban, but I stick with my accounts that I originally sign up for with services. I'm just answering as the docs say you should. But if I had a co-worker who used Stack Overflow and the account did not look like a dupe, would it be unaffected by a first time question ban? I do not know if anyone uses Stack Overflow at work, and we are a small IT department so this is not a complaint that I have co-workers affected, just due diligence. I realize you may not be able to speak specifically to if anyone else would be affected but what would the general rule be then.
My reading of another post on a user creating multiple accounts led me to believe I may not understand entirely how question bans work and their effects.
Can I simply create a new account?
No. The automatic ban is at a lower level than account.
Of course this is unclear about existing accounts.
Also, it says:
My account is in good standing how come I still get banned?
Since the ban is based on IP address as well, when you browse from a shared computer or from work location that give the same IP address to many end users it's enough that one get banned and all others are "banned" as well. To rectify this, just browse from a different location.
Should I assume that no matter what, that any IP adress I go to nobody can ask a question from that IP anymore unless my ban is lifted and avoid logging on any other IP addresses? There is no cut off on that and it will apply in every case?