This question already has an answer here:
Looking at the revision history, it is evident that neither the owner deleted the post, nor did any moderator. The reviewers decided to delete the post.
My question is, don't you guys think the following message:
declined - a moderator reviewed your flag, but found no evidence to support it
is not appropriate in such cases? Since, it was the moderator who declined, however, the reviewers voted to delete the post. There could be a mechanism such that the declined flag should not be actually considered as declined finally. Because, the post was ultimately deleted as it was flagged. Although, a moderator though otherwise, however, there was a conflict between the action of the moderator and the reviewers.
I hope what I understood from the revision history and what I tried to explain in my question is correct.
I don't think this is a duplicate question. The question picked as duplicate addresses "how the flag was declined" and not "why". I mean, the answers to that questions just tells whatever happened, but it doesn't answer "why" the flag was declined.