A question might talk about Latin-based languages, and refer to them as Romantic languages.

From the context, and the capitalized "R", it is clear that they meant to say Romanic languages, as in languages related to Rome, or languages derived from Latin, and not languages with significant romantic literature.

If I suggest the edit from "Romantic" to "Romanic", the system says that the edit is minor (less than 5 characters). But the 1 character edit changes the meaning of the sentence (unless the reader understands it's a typo and reads it accordingly).

I can easily circumvent this by replacing "Romantic" with "Romanic (Latin-derived)" to have enough characters changed.

Is a moderator right to reject such an edit?

I understand why a moderator would reject a change that just ads a synonym between parentheses. That doesn't help with readability. But, the synonym is only added to circumvent the hard condition of more than 5 characters changed, and this is explained accurately in the edit comment.

I can easily understand and accept that moderators sometimes make mistakes. Everyone does, that's life. But I wonder if the moderator would not be mistaken to reject such an edit. And if not, what would be the reasoning.

The above scenario played out here.

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    You have enough reputation to leave a comment under that post, so you can do that instead. – Tom Mar 5 at 13:17
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    In general: if you want to do something but the system doesn't allow you then you shouldn't work-around those limitations. If you do, don't be surprised it has (negative) consequences. In the case of edits: leave a comment so somebody with full-edit-privileges can make the edit for you. – rene Mar 5 at 13:17
  • Also, do people really use "romantic languages"? Is would assume one would say "romantic words", but "romantic language(s)" always looks like a typo of "romanic". – Tom Mar 5 at 13:18
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    Not to be that guy, but a quick Google search tells me that "romantic languages" and "Romanic languages" are both wrong, and the actual correct term is "Romance languages". – F1Krazy Mar 5 at 13:23
  • Also: "soon enough there will be posts about Trumpf, wrongly spelled as Dump, and nothing could be done about it" - not true. a) Once you have a certain amount of reputation and gain full edit privileges, the 5-character minimum ceases to apply and you can correct a mis-spelling like that with ease. b) In my experience, any SE post referring to "Donald Dump" is likely to be a troll or otherwise unsalvageable, in which case it would just get deleted anyway. – F1Krazy Mar 5 at 13:27
  • Does this answer your question? How do suggested edits work? - Is there a minimum change threshold for a suggested edit?: small edits are done by users with the privilege to edit. Unprivileged users making suggested edits that are too small are blocked. If you defeat the block by making superfluous changes you should expect your edit to be rejected, especially if you are bumping an old post with a minor correction. – Rob Mar 5 at 13:28
  • @rene I was expecting possible negative consequences. I just hoped there would also be a positive consequence, i.e. the moderator to do the part of the edit that is not superfluous. – Andrei Mar 5 at 13:35
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    @F1Krazy I was not aware that the 5 character limitation is only for low-reputation. This pretty much answers my question. The design easily allows for such an edit, just not by me. That works out from my point of view. Also, there's no reason to excuse yourself for being that guy, I'm always up for learning something new. But, Romanic is perfectly acceptable, as evidenced by the very same wikipedia page you linked. It is even used out of the "Romanic language" context ("Romanic element - meaning element related to Rome") – Andrei Mar 5 at 13:42
  • @Andrei I skimmed the article but didn't notice that at first. Fair enough. – F1Krazy Mar 5 at 13:44
  • @F1Krazy The question now is what should I do now. My question has been answered with your comment. Do you want to write it as an answer that I can accept? Should I write my own answer based on the comments of the question? – Andrei Mar 5 at 13:45
  • @Tom Yes, people do use the term romantic language. French, Iranian, and Japanese are often considered to be romantic, but if you search well-enough, you will probably find at least 1 person for each language in the world, that would describe that language as romantic. Usually it's about the amount of romantic literature available in that language. – Andrei Mar 5 at 14:00
  • Sorry, I was busy and the question got closed before I saw that you'd pinged me. – F1Krazy Mar 5 at 14:07
  • @F1Krazy No problem, I got my answer, and whoever stumbles upon this question will also likely read the comments. That's good enough for me. – Andrei Mar 5 at 14:11
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    Just a for what it's worth, in my day, in schoo,l the languages that are based / evolved from Latin were referred to as the Romance languages, not Romantic languages. (But I can see how usage may have changed over time) (Romanian, Spanish, Portuguese, Italian, etc) – KorvinStarmast Mar 5 at 14:46
  • @KorvinStarmast What you learned in school still applies today. Romanic (mind the lack of t) language is also a valid alternative form. Romantic languages also exist, but they do not have to also be Romanic/Romance. – Andrei Mar 5 at 14:53

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